One mistake that is commonly made is to assume that all people within a denomination hold to all of the beliefs of that denomination. I am an example of that fallacy. I was raised in the Baptist denomination, yet I never believed the doctrine of original sin. Of all of the denominational doctrines that people will cling to, in spite of the Biblical evidence to the contrary, “original sin” is one of the most baffling to me. “Original sin” (claiming that everyone is born with the sin of Adam upon them) seems to me a toned-down version of Calvin’s total depravity. I like to call original sin “total depravity light” ™. I would like to briefly look at this unbiblical doctrine.

I would like to begin by trying to determine how people think that original sin might be inherited. There are only two possible explanations:

#1. Through the blood. This possible means of transmitting original sin would be physical – in other words, it is somehow genetic and transmitted physically from parent to child. This possibility can be defeated with one word – Jesus. If original sin were transmitted physically, then Jesus, born of woman, would have inherited this sin. We know that Jesus had no sin (2 Corinthians 5:21). Notice that Psalm 51 (a favorite passage for those who teach original sin), if used to teach original sin, states that it comes from the mother. Jesus clearly had an earthly mother who carried Him like our mothers carried us. Sin cannot be transmitted physically, for if it is, then Jesus Himself inherited this sin.

#2. Through the spirit of man. This possible means of inheriting original sin would be spiritual – somehow our souls are created with the stain of Adam’s sin and we have it the moment we are born. Those who would take this position find themselves guilty of attacking the creation of God the Father. Notice:

Ecclesiastes 12:7 then the dust will return to the earth as it was, and the spirit will return to God who gave it.

Hebrews 12: 9 Furthermore, we had earthly fathers to discipline us, and we respected them; shall we not much rather be subject to the Father of spirits, and live?

Our spirits come from God. Shall we say that sinless God Almighty is guilty of creating sin? 1 John 1:5 says that in God there is no darkness. If He attaches sin to the spirit He gives us, certainly there IS darkness in Him. This notion besmirches the very character of our Creator.

If original sin were true, then it must be transmitted either physically or spiritually and neither option is viable in light of the scriptures.

I don’t think it would be fair to simply dismiss this doctrine and say that there are no verses that might be misinterpreted to substantiate it. Let us look briefly at a few “proof texts” used to back up this teaching.

Psalm 58: 3The wicked are estranged from the womb: they go astray as soon as they be born, speaking lies.

To ignore the poetic language of this Psalm is dangerous, and really makes no sense. Many will point out that the wicked go astray as soon as they are born, yet ignore the impossibility of a newborn “speaking lies”. If this verse is to be taken literally, then what literal poison (like that of a poisonous snake) do they possess, as the next verse would indicate? Also, if this verse is to be taken literally, then what do we make of this verse:

Job 31:18 For from my youth he was brought up with me, as with a father, and I have guided her from my mother’s womb

Was Job literally caring for widows from his birth, or is this poetic language? Why would Psalm 58:3 be literal and Job 31:18 be figurative? This is a glaring inconsistency.

The Bible tells us elsewhere that, while we may become evil at an early age, it takes a period of learning the difference between good and evil before one is truly wicked in the eyes of God:

Isaiah 7: 15Butter and honey shall he eat, that he may know to refuse the evil, and choose the good. 16For before the child shall know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest shall be forsaken of both her kings.

The apostle Paul wrote of a time when he was “alive without the law” (Romans 7:9). When, other than his childhood, could this have been? Since the garden of Eden there has been law – Patriarchal, Mosaic and the law of Christ. You cannot find any period in the Bible in which God had no law for man. How then could Paul have been alive without the law? I see no other good explanation than the fact that the law (of Moses) was not over him until he was old enough to understand it. This goes back to Isaiah 7: 15-16.

Perhaps the greatest verse used to support the doctrine of original sin is Romans 3:23:

For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

There it is – all have sinned. Does this verse have no qualifiers? Does “all” simply mean “all”? Let us look just two chapters over in the book of Romans (chapter 5):

18Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.

Did this free gift (salvation) come upon all men, or must we qualify this statement based upon the whole of scripture? Does “all” mean “all” here? I think we are forced by the whole of scriptures to conclude that “all” who receive the free gift are those that obey Christ. We must also conclude that the “all” who have sinned are those that have reached the age where they understand good and evil.

Closing Thoughts

I guess one of the strangest things about the doctrine of original sin is the way it is applied by many who teach it. I have read Methodists and Pentecostals (and others) say that while we inherit original sin, it is not imputed to us until we reach an age where we can cognitively be held accountable for it. In other words, you have this sin, but God doesn’t hold it against you until you reach an age of accountability. I guess those who follow Calvin over Christ are at least consistent when they assert that non-elect babies will be held accountable for, and condemned for, original sin. What sense does it make to claim a person has sins, but won’t be held accountable for them? Does it not make more sense to simply acknowledge that we are without sin until we are able to know the difference between good and evil as the scriptures teach? Look:

Ezekiel 18:  20The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.

Your wickedness or righteousness is determined by you and your relationship with God. I don’t bear the sins of my father Adam – his sins are his, mine are mine. The doctrine of original sin is in complete contradiction with Ezekiel 18:20.

Perhaps there is no passage that shows us any more clearly that children do not inherit sin than Matthew 19:14:

But Jesus said, Suffer little children, and forbid them not, to come unto me: for of such is the kingdom of heaven.

Are we to believe that the kingdom of heaven is comprised of totally depraved souls, or those that have inherited sin in some fashion? Children are born without sin. To be certain, once we have reached the age where we understand what God wants from us (and that age will differ from person to person) then we will sin, thus making Romans 3:23 universally true. Until that time, we are “alive without law”, bearing no sin of our own, and certainly not the sin of Adam.